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jeffhoard | December 20, 2008 11:54 PM | in World

Why was the United States the only country to vote against the "Right to Food"?

"By a vote of 180 in favour to 1 against (United States) and no abstentions, the Committee also approved a resolution on the right to food, by which the Assembly would “consider it intolerable” that more than 6 million children still died every year from hunger-related illness before their fifth birthday, and that the number of undernourished people had grown to about 923 million worldwide, at the same time that the planet could produce enough food to feed 12 billion people, or twice the world’s present population. (See Annex III.)"

http://www.un.org/News/Press/docs/2008/gashc3941.doc.htm#

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BEST ANSWER chosen by asker | seashell55 | December 21, 2008 01:51 AM

Under the Bush administration, the 'Right to Food' is viewed as an economic right, meaning that the government's responsibility is to provide the economic conditions that allow a person to obtain food from money received through her own initiatives. The administration denies that anyone has a right to expect the government to provide food directly, or that such a right would or could be enforceable under international law.

This is a distinctly different view from the previous Clinton administration, which saw the 'Right to Food' as "the most basic human right."

source(s):
http://www.unhchr.ch/Huridocda/Huridoca.nsf/TestFrame/ff220c7e04411faa80256...

http://www.treatycouncil.org/International%20Indigenous%20Food%20Policy%20I...

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Thank you for the sources

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ssharon | December 21, 2008 12:15 AM

Probably because many countries view the US as the richest country and therefore will expect it to provide all of this food to the malnourished. This sounds great and all, but did you know that there are countries that refuse US food donations?

source(s):
http://www.foxnews.com/story/0,2933,89174,00.html

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