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albanian

M$1 August 13, 2009 12:08 PM

Can a residency requirement be held "in abeyance" for an election?

In New Orleans a petition is being circulated to ask the City Council to hold the residency requirement for running for mayor "in abeyance" in order to allow a popular figure to be drafted. Whether this is possible legally no doubt depends upon city and state law.

However, I have never heard of anything like this. Is it just silly, or is there some legal precedent somewhere? Do you know of any cases like that in other elections in countries with either a British Common Law basis or a Napoleonic Code basis?

http://www.nola.com/celebrities/index.ssf/2009/08/brad_pitt_for_mayor_of_new_orl.html

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