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M$1 June 08, 2009 10:04 PM

Why did Japan nationalize its banks during the financial meltdown of the 1990s?

http://search.japantimes.co.jp/cgi-bin/eo20090218a1.html

Which points do you agree with or disagree with, provide your reasoning.

1. Japan had purchased or nationalized insolvent banks. Insolvent means the banks did not have the assets to continue operating business and meet creditor demands.

2. The Japanese government had overpaid for the bad assets.

3. The Japanese government did not have the proper or capable management to handle the bad assets because they lacked expertise.

4. The Japanese banks remained zombies with the bad assets remaining on their books strangling earnings. Many of the creditors did not get full funds back from the insolvent banks.

5. The rescue of the backs came at a high cost to the Japanese taxpayer.
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Best Answer  Chosen by Asker

 
June 08, 2009 11:53 PM
The only one I really agree with is number 5:
"The rescue of the backs came at a high cost to the Japanese taxpayer"

The following passage from the Wallstreet Journal both explains why Japan nationalized its banks and supports that point:

" But analysts caution the jury is still out on the fate of hundreds of U.S. banks still sitting on huge real-estate-related losses. As the nation debates how to deal with them, Japan’s experience — particularly on how to spend taxpayer money more effectively in a bailout — offers clues.

Japan spent nearly $440 billion in taxpayer money, mostly from 1998 to 2003, to protect depositors, nationalize the sickest of banks and beef up the capital of other financial institutions.

About 70% had been returned to government coffers by last year, according to the Deposit Insurance Corp. of Japan, which is funded by both the government and banks and plays a similar role to that of the U.S. Federal Deposit Insurance Corp. More is expected to be recovered later."

In other words, by August 2008 (the time the article was written) 30% of the $440 billion investment by Japan's government had yet to be paid.
Source(s):
1. http://online.wsj.com/article/SB121856704170634041.html#articleTabs_article

2. http://www.creditwritedowns.com/2008/08/lessons-from-japans-bank-crisis.htm...

Asker's Rating:
• Excellent point.

Since there is no way to inventory the banks assets, how can the media assume that the asset are valueless. Without a list of writedowns and valuation equations, the value assumptions are meaningless. Second, Japanese management may not need change. Third, the amount paid for the asset may have been correctly valued.



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Helpful: pmacdon1

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