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Why is it that Christopher Layden was charged and convicted but the informant wasn't? Who gives the police the right to be judge and jury?
I just think it is strange that the police decide who goes and who doesn't. Was there some religious bias going on here? Obviously Layden had a problem with addiction, but he was still a contributing member of society. Those of us who know the informant can certainly attest that he is not a contributing memeber of society. So why is it that the police choose to make a mockery of this man who gives to society and let the thug go free? I don't understand criminal justice in America.
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| August 31, 2009 01:55 AM |
We elect the lawmakers who allow these sorts of plea agreements, and whether you agree with them as a useful tool for prosecutors or think they're overly used and oftentimes in a discriminatory manner, we're the ones in a free society who empower the legal authorities.
Find enough people who agree with you and be the change (or not). That's the great thing and frustrating thing about democracies.
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September 01, 2009 06:52 AM
The whole point of having an informant is by having the informant cut a deal with the prosecutors in exchange for a reduced sentence, or no charges. Otherwise informants would have no incentive to talk to the authorities, and the authorities would not be able to go up the criminal food chain and get higher up the conspiracy.
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