2 years, 2 months ago
is (sin(x)^2) = (cos(x)^2)?
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M$1 Answer
Hi there,
It is not.
sin^2(x) != cos^2(x). (!= is programmer jargon for not equals)
sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1
So in other words
sin^2(x) = 1 - cos ^2 (x) .. unless you have a value of X at which you can evaluate sin (x) and cos (x).
It is not.
sin^2(x) != cos^2(x). (!= is programmer jargon for not equals)
sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1
So in other words
sin^2(x) = 1 - cos ^2 (x) .. unless you have a value of X at which you can evaluate sin (x) and cos (x).
You can leave an optional "tip" with Mahalo's virtual currency, Mahalo Dollars. If you are asking a difficult question that might require some research, or if you'd like a wide variety of feedback, a higher tip often leads to more answers to your question.
M$
How about where the two graphs intersect? I'd be willing to bet that at the x-values where the two graphs meet that their corresponding y-values will be equal.
@13rand0n
Yes, sin (x) = cos (x ) at x = pi / 4 + 2n*pi where n is an integer (n = ..-1, 0, 1, ..)
The asker didn't give out a value of x and he is asking whether the equation is true for all x. It is not.
You can see where it intersects here (look for the zeros).
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=sin(x)+-+cos+(x)